@jaychamp I am pretty sure @Sarg0n knows that. And in situation he shows it assumed that has not moved
It doesn't matter if white has the right to castle or not, he should still complete the castling because an illegal move (and the ability to play Kf2 after the move is taken back) is less serious than getting checkmated.
Guys, you don’t understand the problem?
According the current rule-set Black has the move after Kf1-g1. Black has the right to move. See FIDE rules.
So this approach with the King beside board is interesting. Or one should rethink an universal rule, that any kind of castling has to be started with the „illegal“ part of the double-move. Like in chess1, you have to start with the „illegal“ King move.
It's not clear that black "has the move" until white has completed his move, i.e. pressed the clock. Black has merely displaced two pieces and must correct their positions on his own time.
Edit:
4.7
When, as a legal move or part of a legal move, a piece has been released on a square, it cannot be moved to another square on this move. The move is considered to have been made in the case of:
4.7.1 a capture, when the captured piece has been removed from the chessboard and the player, having placed his own piece on its new square, has released this capturing piece from his hand,
4.7.2 castling, when the player's hand has released the rook on the square previously crossed by the king. When the player has released the king from his hand, the move is not yet made, but the player no longer has the right to make any move other than castling on that side, if this is legal. If castling on this side is illegal, the player must make another legal move with his king (which may include castling with the other rook). If the king has no legal move, the player is free to make any legal move.
4.7.3 promotion, when the player's hand has released the new piece on the square of promotion and the pawn has been removed from the board.
No mention of when a non-capture/castling/promotion move is considered to have been made. White cannot move the king to a different square even if he tries to complete an illegal castling (so I was wrong about that) but if he does have the right to castle, then there's nothing preventing him from finishing the castling (after summoning the arbiter and having him tell black to put the queens back on his time).
Edit 2: actually, doesn't 4.7.2 mean that if you put your king on g1, and if kingside castling is legal, then you must castle EVEN IF Kg1 was a legal move? Or the king started on g1, you pick it up and put it back down, and your opponent points out that you must now castle?
A common error, @RapidVariants. Haven’t you read my reminder #2?
White made a legal move and Black has the move. An universal rule without any clocks at all.
Article 1: The nature and objectives of the game of chess
1.1 The game of chess is played between two opponents who move their pieces alternately on a square board called a ‘chessboard’. The player with the white pieces commences the game. A player is said to ‘have the move’, when his opponent’s move has been ‘made’. (See Article 6.7)
"Guys, you don’t understand the problem?"
What problem?
You have presented a philosophical question about language and interpreting words out of context. Do you actually have any real examples of this ambiguity causing issues? Then you'll have demonstrated that it is a problem.
It is a concrete „hole“ (inconsistency) in the rules. In the given example you (White) can move Kg1, perfectly legal but ambiguous. What now? How long after that you are allowed to decide completing the move or moving an additional Rf1 to complete castling and pressing the clock? What if the opponent moves meanwhile because he has the move?
The touch-move rule doesn't apply in the starting position, but white can't adjust the pieces either (since he doesn't have the move, because his opponent's nonexistent move hasn't been made). Fortunately none of the relevant rules about the pieces move are restricted to the player having the move.
Did you read my edit about 4.7? The rules don't define when your move is considered to have been made if it's not a capture, promotion or castling.
If I were white I'd grab the rook with my other hand (since black forfeited his right to claim against my two-handed move when he touched his queen with the intention of moving it) and complete the castling.
#4 A quicker way of doing it would be to use the king in your hand to push the rook to f1/d1, then place the king on g1/c1. :D
#7 This is a famous position known as the Schrödinger endgame. Releasing the king on g1 completes the move Kg1, but at the same time does not complete the move 0-0. That means that the response Qxe1# is both legal and illegal at the same time. In case black has already made an illegal move before, that would mean that Qxe1# wins and loses the game at the same time.
(No cats were harmed for this comment.)
@Sarg0n actuallly you shoudl not touch the board untill opponent has pressed the clock
6.2.1 During the game each player, having made his move on the chessboard, shall
stop his own clock and start his opponent‟s clock (that is to say, he shall press his
clock). This “completes” the move. A move is also completed if:
But you right that opponent has right tomake move IF the player forgot to press clock
also:
6.2.5 Only the player whose clock is running is allowed to adjust the pieces.
So one should not rush to make a move but wait untill it is clear that move is over
But rules are not clear on this as they are designed for Chess1. So probably removing king from the board (a illegal move as you suggested) place the rook then place the king. Sound good
Though Fischer Random is soooo rare OTB that this will probably not get lots attention from rule makers
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