Dear Users,
I am really confused about the Training Task No. 61271 (https://lichess.org/training/61271).
The set of moves I would have chosen is the following:
Nf5 - white plays Nd5 (everything is ok up until here).
And now I would obviously take out the bishop with Nxe3+ ; this is a material win plus a check without direct threat to my Knight.
Now hold onto yourself, as the "right move" is not considered to be Nxe3+; instead the programm wants me to play Qxd5! How the hell is this considered to be the best move? :D
Excuse me, if I have been really blind, but the post analysis did not lead to an insight either. Can you please help me understand?
Kind regards and stay healthy!
The problem with Nxe3+ is that white can capture your knight with their knight. That's the reason why white played Nd5.
I think what's going on here is that the bishop is defended by the knight on d5 -- that's why it moved there in the first place.
You suddenly forgot about that white knight on d5.
Huh? Cheap-dirty tactics exercise winning a piece. Run-of-the mill chess stuff, pretty much standard.
I get that I would lose my Knight, but why should the best move be capturing the white Knight with the Queen? The pawn will take it, won't it?
The problem is the Queen move.
Yes, but you could fork THEN, because the knight is no longer there.
!!!! OMG, you are right. Thank you!
Usually such motifs are called "removing of a defender" or something like that.
This topic has been archived and can no longer be replied to.