@Wodjul said in #28:
> No, I am not arguing the above but thank you for seriously engaging.
(Tell me if something is not clear, I used Google Translate and I didn't have the power to check later if the result was good :))
Well, first of all, why do I think that the separation of free will from free choice is incorrect:
Note: I refer to the "I who want and/or choose" as a separate entity from the body and the brain activity for 2 reasons: 1: You yourself made this separation and even contributed Descartes' cogito to that end. 2: If we treat the choice or the will as a mechanical function of the mind we will only get stuck in our own mud. This is a complex issue in itself.
A) Suppose there is no choice and all actions are deterministic. Now I will ask about your claim that it is still possible to say that there is free will:
- If we "know" in advance what the action is that will happen and according to this our desire for this action is determined precisely then we will find that the will is certainly not free at all because this "knowledge" is certainly not conscious knowledge and that means we know something that is not aware of us (which is also something that needs understanding) And according to this information we "want". That is, the desire is causal and depends on the fact that the action is causal!
-And if we don't "know" in advance what the action is that will happen, how is it that we know how to "will" what will happen? (And again, we have no interest in "willing what will happen" because the will is free) How do I know before I moved my hand, that the hand will move and therefore feel a "desire" to move the hand? And if you say that this is a statistic, it is certainly not true because every action has at least 2 options so that at least in half of the cases your desire will not come true!
And I don't think it's possible to say that indeed in most cases it doesn't work unless there is a psychological mechanism that makes us "understand" that it didn't work for a side reason. It is impossible to say yes: 1) This is not true because in the vast majority of times in certain types of actions our desire does correspond to reality. 2) According to this again it turns out that the desire is not controlled by a conscious "I who want" but is a product of psychological mechanisms!
(The Libet experiment you alluded to in your opening message and I will refer to it later, will not help you here both because of the reason I will write when I talk about it and because it is the first side)
-Summary: if we know what the deterministic action is: the will is not free. If we do not know what the deterministic action is: the will is not possible or not free.
And in addition, this is without going into the question of how it works, since the basic questions about "choice" are also asked about "will" if I have a reason to want it specifically, then it is not free. If I don't have a reason, then it is random and certainly not free. That is: in order to explain free will, one must first explain free choice (philosophically. not physically)
-Conclusion: There is no separation between free will and free choice.
b) If there is free choice, then this surely forces free will because if the will is not free, the choice is certainly not free! And vice versa, if there is no free will, surely there is no free choice.
Conclusion: The condemned should not be separated. If I talk about free choice, I will also talk about free will and if I talk about free will: the opposite.